This paper contains 60 questions out of which 50 are to be attempted. If more than 50 questions are answered then first 50 answers will be examined. Each question contains 2 marks each.
SET
- W
1.
Break-down in verbal communication is described as
(A) Short
circuit
(B)
Contradiction
(C) Unevenness
(D) Entropy
Answer D
2.
The Telephone Model of Communication was first developed in the
area of
(A)
Technological theory
(B) Dispersion
theory
(C) Minimal
effects theory
(D)
Information theory
Answer D
3.
The Dada Saheb Phalke Award for 2013 has been conferred on
(A) Karan
Johar
(B) Amir Khan
(C) Asha
Bhonsle
(D) Gulzar
Answer D
4.
Photographs are not easy to
(A) Publish
(B) Secure
(C) Decode
(D) Change
Answer C
5.
The grains that appear on a television set when operated are also
referred to as
(A) sparks
(B) green dots
(C) snow
(D) rain drops
Answer C
6.
In circular communication, the encoder becomes a decoder when
there is
(A) noise
(B) audience
(C)
criticality
(D) feedback
Answer D
7.
In a post-office, stamps of three different denominations of Rs.
7, Rs. 8, Rs.
10 are available. The exact amount for which one cannot buy stamps
is
(A) 19
(B) 20
(C) 23
(D) 29
Answer A
8.
In certain coding method, the word QUESTION is encoded as
DOMESTIC. In this coding, what is the code word for the word RESPONSE?
(A) OMESUCEM
(B) OMESICSM
(C) OMESICEM
(D) OMESISCM
Answer C
9.
If the series 4, 5, 8, 13, 14, 17, 22, .... is continued in the
same pattern, which one of the
following is not a term of this series?
following is not a term of this series?
(A) 31
(B) 32
(C) 33
(D) 35
Answer C
10.
Complete the series BB, FE, II, ML, PP, ........... by choosing
one of the following option given:
(A) TS
(B) ST
(C) RS
(D) SR
Answer A
11.
A man started walking from his house towards south. After walking
6 km, he turned to his
left and walked 5 km. Then he walked further 3 km after turning left. He then turned to his left and continued his walk for 9 km. How far is he away from his
house?
(A) 3 km
(B) 4 km
(C) 5 km
(D) 6 km
Answer C
12.
One writes all numbers from 50 to 99 without the digits 2 and 7.
How many numbers have been written?
(A) 32
(B) 36
(C) 40
(D) 38
Answer A
13.
“If a large diamond is cut up into little bits, it will lose its
value just as an army is divided up into small units of soldiers, it loses its
strength.” The argument put above may be called as
(A) Analogical
(B) Deductive
(C)
Statistical
(D) Causal
Answer
A
14.
Given below are some characteristics of logical argument. Select
the code which expresses a characteristic which is not of inductive in
character.
(A) The
conclusion is claimed to follow from its premises.
(B) The
conclusion is based on causal relation.
(C) The
conclusion conclusively follows from its premises.
(D) The
conclusion is based on observation and experiment.
Answer
C
15.
If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms
can both be true but can not both be false, the relation between those two propositions
is called
(A)
contradictory
(B) contrary
(C)
sub-contrary
(D) subaltern
Answer C
16.
Given below are two premises and four conclusions drawn from those
premises. Select the code that expresses conclusion drawn validly from the
premises (separately or jointly).
Premises
:
(a) All dogs
are mammals.
(b) No cats
are dogs.
Conclusions
:
(i) No cats
are mammals.
(ii) Some cats
are mammals.
(iii) No dogs
are cats.
(iv) No dogs
are non-mammals.
Codes:
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and
(ii)
(C) (iii) and
(iv)
(D) (ii) and
(iii)
Answer C
17.
Given below is a diagram of three circles A, B & C
inter-related with each other. The circle A represents the class of Indians,
the circle B represents the class of scientists and circle C represents the
class of politicians. p, q, r, s ... represent different regions. Select the
code containing the region that indicates the class of Indian scientists who
are not politicians.
Codes:
(A) q and s
only
(B) s only
(C) s and r
only
(D) p, q and s only
Read the
following table carefully. Based upon this table answer questions
from 18
to 22 :
Net Area under
Irrigation by sources in a country (Thousand Hectares)
Year
|
Government
canals
|
Private
canals
|
Tanks
|
Tube
wells
&
other
wells
|
Other
sources
|
Total
|
1997-98
|
17117
|
211
|
2593
|
32090
|
3102
|
55173
|
1998-99
|
17093
|
212
|
2792
|
33988
|
3326
|
57411
|
1999-00
|
16842
|
194
|
2535
|
34623
|
2915
|
57109
|
2000-01
|
15748
|
203
|
2449
|
33796
|
2880
|
55076
|
2001-02
|
15031
|
209
|
2179
|
34906
|
4347
|
56672
|
2002-03
|
13863
|
206
|
1802
|
34250
|
3657
|
53778
|
2003-04
|
14444
|
206
|
1908
|
35779
|
4281
|
56618
|
2004-05
|
14696
|
206
|
1727
|
34785
|
7453
|
58867
|
2005-06
|
15268
|
207
|
2034
|
35372
|
7314
|
60196
|
18.
Which of the following sources of Irrigation has registered the
largest percentage of decline in Net area under irrigation during 1997-98 and 2005-06?
(A) Government
canals
(B) Private
canals
(C) Tanks
(D) Other
sources
Answer C
19.
Find out the source of Irrigation that has registered the maximum
improvement in terms of
percentage of Net irrigated area during 2002-03 and 2003-04.
(A) Government
canals
(B) Tanks
(C) Tube wells
and other wells
(D) Other
sources
Answer D
20.
In which of the following years, Net irrigation by tanks increased
at the highest rate?
(A) 1998-99
(B) 2000-01
(C) 2003-04
(D) 2005-06
Answer D
21.
Identify the source of Irrigation that has recorded the maximum
incidence of negative growth in terms of Net irrigated area during the years given in the table.
(A) Government
canals
(B) Private
canals
(C) Tube wells
and other wells
(D) Other
sources
Answer A
22.
In which of the following years, share of the tube wells and other
wells in the total net irrigated area was the highest?
(A) 1998-99
(B) 2000-01
(C) 2002-03
(D) 2004-05
Answer C
23.
The acronym FTP stands for
(A) File Transfer
Protocol
(B) Fast
Transfer Protocol
(C) File
Tracking Protocol
(D) File
Transfer Procedure
Answer A
24.
Which one of the following is not a/an image/graphic file format?
(A) PNG
(B) GIF
(C) BMP
(D) GUI
Answer D
25.
The first web browser is
(A) Internet
Explorer
(B) Netscape
(C) World Wide
Web
(D) Firefox
Answer C
26.
When a computer is booting, BIOS is loaded to the memory by
(A) RAM
(B) ROM
(C) CD-ROM
(D) TCP
Answer B
27.
Which one of the following is not the same as the other three?
(A) MAC
address
(B) Hardware
address
(C) Physical
address
(D) IP address
Answer D
28.
Identify the IP address from the following:
(A) 300 × 215
× 317 × 3
(B) 302 × 215@
417 × 5
(C) 202 × 50
× 20 × 148
(D) 202 – 50 – 20 – 148
Answer C
29.
The population of India is about 1.2 billion. Take the average
consumption of energy per person per year in India as 30 Mega Joules. If this
consumption is met by carbon based fuel and the rate of carbon emissions per
kilo joule is 15 × 106 kgs, the total carbon emissions per year from India will be
(A) 54 million
metric tons
(B) 540
million metric tons
(C) 5400
million metric tons
(D) 2400
million metric tons
Answer B
30.
Which of the following cities has been worst affected by urban
smog in recent times?
(A) Paris
(B) London
(C) Los
Angeles
(D) Beijing
Answer D
31.
The primary source of organic pollution in fresh water bodies is
(A) run-off
urban areas
(B) run-off
from agricultural forms
(C) sewage
effluents
(D) industrial
effluents
Answer C
32.
‘Lahar’ is a natural disaster involving
(A) eruption
of large amount of material
(B) strong
winds
(C) strong
water waves
(D) strong winds and water waves
Answer A
33.
In order to avoid catastrophic consequences of climate change,
there is general agreement among the countries of the world to limit the rise
in average surface temperature of earth compared to that of pre-industrial
times by
(A) 1.5 °C
to 2 °C
(B) 2.0 °C
to 3.5 °C
(C) 0.5 °C
to 1.0 °C
(D) 0.25 °C
to 0.5 °C
Answer A
34.
The National Disaster Management Authority functions under the
Union Ministry of
(A)
Environment
(B) Water
Resources
(C) Home
Affairs
(D) Defence
Answer C
35.
Match List – I and List – II and select the correct answer from
the codes given below:
List – I
List – II
a. Flood
1. Lack of rainfall of sufficient duration
b.
Drought
2. Tremors produced by the
passage of
vibratory waves through the rocks
of the earth
c. Earthquake
3. A vent through which molted
substances come out
d.
Volcano
4. Excess rain and uneven distribution
of water
Codes
:
a b
c d
(A) 4
1 2 3
(B) 2
3 4 1
(C) 3
4 2
1
(D) 4
3 1 2
Answer A
36.
Which one of the following green house gases has the shortest
residence time in the atmosphere?
(A)
Chlorofluorocarbon
(B) Carbon
dioxide
(C) Methane
(D) Nitrous oxide
Answer C
37.
Consider the following statements and select the correct answer
from the code given below:
i. Rajasthan
receives the highest solar radiation in the country.
ii. India has
the fifth largest installed wind power in the world.
iii. The
maximum amount of wind power is contributed by Tamil Nadu.
iv. The
primary source of uranium in India is Jaduguda.
Codes:
(A) i and ii
(B) i, ii and
iii
(C) ii and iii
(D) i and iv
Answer D
38.
Who among the following is the de facto executive head of the Planning Commission?
(A) Chairman
(B) Deputy
Chairman
(C) Minister
of State for Planning
(D) Member
Secretary
Answer B
39.
Education as a subject of legislation figures in the
(A) Union List
(B) State List
(C) Concurrent
List
(D) Residuary
Powers
Answer C
40.
Which of the following are Central Universities?
1. Pondicherry
University
2. Vishwa
Bharati
3. H.N.B.
Garhwal University
4. Kurukshetra
University
Select the
correct answer from the
code given
below:
Codes:
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Answer A
41.
Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (i) and
(ii).
Statement:
India should have a very strong and powerful Lokpal.
Arguments:
(i) Yes, it will go a long in eliminating corruption in bureaucracy.
(ii) No, it will
discourage honest officers from making quick decisions.
Codes
:
(A) Only
argument (i) is strong.
(B) Only
argument (ii) is strong.
(C) Both the
arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of
the arguments is strong.
Answer A
42.
Which of the following universities has adopted the meta
university concept?
(A) Assam
University
(B) Delhi
University
(C) Hyderabad
University
(D)
Pondicherry University
Answer B
43.
Which of the following statements are correct about a Central
University?
1. Central
University is established under an Act of Parliament.
2. The
President of India acts as the visitor of the University.
3. The
President has the power to nominate some members to the Executive
Committee or the Board of Management of the University.
4. The
President occasionally presides over the meetings of the Executive Committee
or
Court.
Select the
correct answer from the
code given
below :
Codes:
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer C
Answer C
44.
Which one of the following is considered a sign of motivated
teaching?
(A) Students
asking questions
(B) Maximum
attendance of the students
(C) Pin drop
silence in the classroom
(D) Students
taking notes
Answer A
45.
Which one of the following is the best method of teaching?
(A) Lecture
(B) Discussion
(C)
Demonstration
(D) Narration
Answer C
46.
Dyslexia is associated with
(A) mental
disorder
(B)
behavioural disorder
(C) reading
disorder
(D) writing
disorder
Answer C
47.
The e-content generation for undergraduate courses has been
assigned by the Ministry of Human Resource
Development to
(A) INFLIBNET
(B) Consortium
for Educational Communication
(C) National
Knowledge Commission
(D) Indira
Gandhi National Open University
Answer B
48.
Classroom communication is normally considered as
(A) effective
(B) cognitive
(C) affective
(D) selective
Answer C
49.
Who among the following propounded the concept of paradigm?
(A) Peter
Haggett
(B) Von Thunen
(C) Thomas
Kuhn
(D) John K.
Wright
Answer C
50.
In a thesis, figures and tables are included in
(A) the
appendix
(B) a separate
chapter
(C) the
concluding chapter
(D) the text
itself
Answer D
51.
A thesis statement is
(A) an
observation
(B) a fact
(C) an
assertion
(D) a
discussion
Answer C
52.
The research approach of Max Weber to understand how people create
meanings in natural settings is identified as
(A) positive
paradigm
(B) critical
paradigm
(C) natural
paradigm
(D)
interpretative paradigm
Answer D
53.
Which one of the following is a non-probability sampling?
(A) Simple
random
(B) Purposive
(C) Systematic
(D) Stratified
Answer B
54.
Identify the category of evaluation that assesses the learning
progress to provide continuous feedback to the students
during instruction.
(A) Placement
(B) Diagnostic
(C) Formative
(D) Summative
Answer C
55.
The research stream of immediate application is
(A) Conceptual
research
(B) Action
research
(C)
Fundamental research
(D) Empirical research
Answer B
Read the
following passage carefully and answer questions 56
to 60:
Traditional
Indian Values must be viewed both from the angle of the individual and from
that of the
geographically delimited agglomeration of peoples or groups enjoying a common
system of leadership which we call the ‘State’. The Indian ‘State’s’ special
feature is the peaceful, or perhaps mostly peaceful, co-existence of social
groups of various historical provenances which mutually adhere in a
geographical, economic, and political sense, without ever assimilating to each
other in social terms, in ways of thinking, or even in language. Modern Indian
law will determine certain rules, especially in relation to the regime of the
family, upon the basis of how the loin-cloth is tied, or how the turban is
worn, for this may identify the litigants as members of a regional group, and
therefore as participants in its traditional law, though their ancestors left
the region three or four centuries earlier. The use of the word ‘State’ above
must not mislead us. There was no such thing as a conflict between the
individual and the State, atleast before foreign governments became
established, just as there was no concept of state
‘sovereignty’ or of any church-and-state dichotomy.
Modern Indian
‘secularism’ has an admittedly peculiar feature: It requires the state to make
a fair distribution of attention and support amongst all religions. These
blessed aspects of India’s famed tolerance (Indian kings so rarely persecuted
religious groups that the exceptions prove the rule) at once struck Portuguese
and other European visitors to the West Coast of India in the sixteenth
century, and the impression made upon them in this and other ways gave rise, at
one remove, to the basic constitution of Thomas More’s Utopia. There is little
about modern India that strikes one at once as Utopian: but the insistence upon
the inculcation of norms, and the absence of bigotry and institutionalized
exploitation of human or natural resources, are two very different features
which link the realities of India and her tradition with the essence of all Utopians.
56.
Which of the following is a special feature of the Indian State?
(A) Peaceful
co-existence of people under a common system of leadership
(B) Peaceful
co-existence of social groups of different historical provenances attached
to each
other in a geographical, economic and political sense
(C) Social
integration of all groups
(D) Cultural
assimilation of all social groups.
Answer B
57.
The author uses the word ‘State’ to highlight
(A)
Antagonistic relationship between the state and the individual throughout the period of history.
(B) Absence of
conflict between the state and the individuals upto a point in time.
(C) The
concept of state sovereignty.
(D) Dependence
on religion.
Answer D
58.
Which one is the peculiar feature of modern Indian ‘Secularism’?
(A) No
discrimination on religious considerations
(B) Total
indifference to religion
(C) No space
for social identity
(D) Disregard
for social law
Answer A
59.
The basic construction of Thomas More’s Utopia was inspired by
(A) Indian
tradition of religious tolerance.
(B)
Persecution of religious groups by Indian rulers.
(C) Social
inequality in India.
(D) European
perception of Indian State.
Answer A
60.
What is the striking feature of modern India?
(A) A replica
of Utopian State
(B) Uniform
laws
(C) Adherence
to traditional values
(D) Absence of Bigotry
Answer D
source: www.ugcnetonline.in
source: www.ugcnetonline.in
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