UGC NET Management study material: UGC NET Management June 2014 Paper III solved

1. In case a decrease in price of a commodity results in an increase in its demand on a negatively sloping demand curve, it is called

(A) An increase in demand

(B) An increase in quantity demanded

(D) Any of the above

Answer B

2. Production function is not based on the assumption of the

(A) Substitutability of inputs

(B) Complementarity of inputs

(D) Specificity of inputs

Answer C

3. Match the items of the following two lists and indicate the correct code :

List – I List – II

a. Trade channel discounts i. Oligopoly pricing

b. Tie-up sales ii. Locational price differentials

c. Price being nonresponsive to changes in iii. Differential pricing

demand costs

d. Basing-point pricing iv. Product-line pricing

Codes :

a b c d

(A) iv ii iii i

(B) iii iv i ii

(D) I iii ii iv

Answer B

4. Indicate the correct code matching the items in List – I with those in List – II as follows :

List – I List – II

a. Competitive parity in advertising i. Variations in advertising

b. Promotional elasticity of product ii. Advertising scheduling

c. Optimal promotion mix iii. Advertising expenditure

d. Pulsing advertising iv. Marginal equivalence of dvertising

media outlay

Codes :

a b c d

(A) ii iii i iv

(B) iii i iv ii

(D) iv ii iii i

Answer B

5. Macroeconomics basically concerns with which of following in an economy?

(A) Industry, Trade and Commerce

(B) Agriculture, Industry & Trade

(D) Population, Income and Economic Planning

Answer C

6. The competition commission of India has no rule in regulating which of the following?

(A) Restrictive Trade Agreements

(B) Abuse of Market Power

(D) Mergers and Acquisitions

Answer C

7. The ability to understand, communicate with, motivate and support other people, both individually and in groups, defines which of the following management skills?

(A) Hard Skills

(B) Soft Skills

(D) Political Skills

Answer B

8. As __________, managers receive a wide variety of information and serve as the nerve centers of internal and external information of the organization.

(A) Leaders

(B) Monitors

(D) Resource allocators

Answer B

9. Which one is the correct combination?

(A) Theory of Conditioning – Bernara

(B) Operant Conditioning Theory – B.F. Skinner

(D) Theory of Associates – Marshall

Answer B

10. Match the following:

List – I List – II

a. Evaluative statements or judgments i. Attitudes

concerning objects, people or events

b. The opinion or belief segment of ii. Cognitive Component

an attitude

c. The emotional or feeling segment iii. Affective Component

of an attitude

d. An intention to behave in a certain way iv. Behavioural component

towards someone or something

Codes :

a b c d

(A) i ii iii iv

(B) iv iii ii i

(D) i iii ii iv

Answer A

11. As per Rorsach value survey, which of the following is not an instrumental value?

(A) Ambitious

(B) Imagination

(D) Capable

Answer C

12. When we judge someone on the basis of our perception of the group to which

he or she belongs, we are using the shortcut, called ________

(A) Selective Perceptive

(B) Halo effect

(D) Stereotyping

Answer D

13. Performance = f (m, a, e). In this expression ‘e’ stands for

(A) Efficiency

(B) Effectiveness

(D) Entrepreneurship

Answer C

14. Selecting a representative sample of jobs, preparing job descriptions for

them, comparing them on the basis of the information in the job descriptions

and placing them in order of their perceived importance represents which of

the following job evaluation methods?

(A) Job grading method

(B) Job ranking method

(D) Guide chart method

Answer B

15. Match the following:

List – I List – II

a. A pay plan in which most employees are i. Elitest pay system

part of the same compensation system.

b. A pay plan in which different compensation ii. Skill based pay

systems are established for employees or

groups at different organizational levels.

c. A pay system in which employees are iii. Egalitarian pay system

paid on the basis of the jobs they can do.

d. The perceived fairness of the pay structure iv. Internal equity

within a firm.

Codes :

a b c d

(A) i ii iii iv

(B) iii i ii iv

(D) iii ii i iv

Answer B

16. ________ of an employee is the process of evaluating the employee performance of the job in terms of the requirements of the job.

(A) Merit rating

(B) Job Evaluation

(D) Performance Appraisal

Answer A

17. HRM is regarded as old wine in a new bottle. This idea was formulated by

(A) Armstrong

(B) Guest

(D) Peter Drucker

Answer A

18. The space for every worker employed on the factory under the Factories Act, 1948 should

be atleast

(A) 9.9 cubic metre

(B) 10.2 cubic metre

(D) 14.2 cubic metre

Answer D

19. Which of the following combinations is correct?

(A) The practice of replacing narrowly defined job descriptions

with broader categories of related jobs – Job Hierarchy

(B) A firm’s decision to pay above, below or at the

market rate for its jobs – Pay Grades

range – Pay Policy

(D) A job that is similar or comparable in

content across firms – Key job

Answer D

20. A technique for resolving conflict in which the parties agree to have a

neutral third party hear the dispute and make a decision is called

(A) Negotiation

(B) Arbitration

(D) Collective Bargaining

Answer B

21. Identify the major actor(s) of industrial relation, from the following:

(A) Employees

(B) Unions

(D) All of the above

Answer D

22. The yield to maturity of a bond is the interest rate

(A) That makes the total cash flows receivable from owning the

bond equal to the price of the bond.

(B) That makes the present value of cash flows receivable from

owning the bond equal to the price of the bond.

the first call equal to the face value of the bond.

(D) None of the above

Answer B

23. Match the correct options for the following capital budgeting appraisal criteria :

List – I List – II

a. The criterion based on the cash i. Internal Rate of Return

flows of a limited period.

b. The criterion based on profit ii. Pay-back Method

over life of the project.

c. The criterion that considers cash iii. Accounting Rate of Return

flows over the life of project which

considered the time value of money.

d. The criterion that derives the iv. Net Present Value

outcomes in terms of the rate of

return considering the cash flows

over the life of project with the

time value of money.

Codes :

a b c d

(A) i ii iii iv

(B) ii iii iv i

(D) iv iii ii i

Answer B

24. Match the following theories with reference to the capital structure theories:

List – I List – II

a. Traditional approach i. Highly profitable companies

generally use little debt.

b. Trade-off Theory ii. Optimal capital structure exists

c. Packing order theory iii. Optimal debt equity ratio of profitable firm

that has stable, tangible assets would be

higher than the optimal debt-equity ratio

of unprofitable firm.

Codes :

a b c

(A) i ii iii

(B) ii iii i

(D) I iii ii

Answer B

25. Lintner Model shows that the current dividend depends

(A) partly on current earnings and partly on the previous year’s dividend.

(B) partly on market rate of return and partly on the expected rate of return.

(D) partly on previous year’s dividend and partly on the market rate of return.

Answer A

26. “The difference between the forward rate and the spot rate is just enough

to offset the difference between the interest rate in the two currencies.”

This concept is known as

(A) Purchasing power parity

(B) Fisher effect

(D) International Fisher effect

Answer C

27. Match the following terms:

List – I List – II

a. Forward contract i. An agreement between two parties

to exchange one set of cash flows for

another

b. Futures contract ii. A standardized contract

c. Swap iii. The seller of an instrument

grants the buyer the right, but not the

obligation, to buy or sell some asset at

a pre-determined price during the

specified period

d. Options iv. A tailor made contract

Codes :

a b c d

(A) i iii ii iv

(B) ii iv iii i

(D) iv ii i iii

Answer D

28. An analysis of percentage financial statement where all the Balance sheet items

are divided by the total assets and all the income statement items are divided by

net sales or revenue is known as

(A) Index Analysis

(B) Trend Analysis

(D) Common size Analysis

Answer D

29. A company collecting cash from customers within two days and paying to suppliers

in 35 days, will have

(A) Negative operating cycle

(B) Negative cash cycle

(D) None of (A) or (B)

Answer B

30. Match the following expressions:

List – I List – II

a. Venture capital i. Emphasises on corporate governance

b. Private equity ii. Issue of securities to a select group

of persons not exceeding 49

c. Private placement iii. Emphasises on Management capability

Codes :

a b c

(A) i ii iii

(B) ii iii i

(D) i iii ii

Answer C

31. The fundamental determinant of a person’s wants and behaviour is

(A) Perception

(B) Personality

(D) Social Group

Answer C

32. Consider the following statements:

(1) Exclusive dealing amounts to a restrictive agreement under the Competition

Act, 2002.

(2) The rate of growth in the service sector in India is highest among all the other

sectors of economy.

(3) Predatory pricing is not regulated under any law.

(4) A company using sales force promotion and trade promotion is using “Pull” strategy.

Indicate the correct answer out of the following:

(A) While statements (1) and (2) are true, (3) and (4) are not.

(B) While statements (1) and (3) are true, rest are not.

(D) All the statements are true

Answer A

33. Personal influence is most important at the _____ stage of the consumer

adoption process.

(A) Adoption

(B) Awareness

(D) Trial

Answer C

34. The price setting method most closely corresponding of the concept of product

positioning is

(A) Cost-plus pricing

(B) Psychological pricing

(D) Perceived-value pricing

Answer D

35. Use of mail, telephone and other non-personal contact tools to communicate with, or solicit a response from, specific customers and prospects is called

(A) Advertising

(B) Direct Marketing

(D) Public Relations

Answer B

36. _________ marketing describes the employees’ skills in serving the clients.

(A) External

(B) Interactive

(D) Relationship

Answer B

37. Match the two sets of concepts:

List – I List – II

i. Evaluation of Alternatives a. Perception

ii. Post-purchase behavior b. Cognitive dissonance

iii. Selective distortion c. Life style

iv. Psychographic segmentation d. Expectancy value model

Codes :

a b c d

(A) i ii iii iv

(B) ii iii iv i

(D) iv iii ii i

Answer C

38. Which of the following determinants of service quality is the most important?

(A) Empathy

(B) Reliability

(D) Tangibility

Answer B

39. While developing customer loyalty programmes, database is often not helpful in

(A) Identifying prospective customers

(B) Deepening customer loyalty

(D) Creating consumer associations

Answer D

40. The problem caused by a redundant constraint is that

(A) The problem shall have no feasible solution.

(B) The problem shall have abounded solution.

(D) None of the above.

Answer D

41. The upper control limit for an R-chart is

(A) RD₃

(B) RD₄

_ _

(D) X+A₂R

Answer B

42. A company uses rivets at a rate of 15,000 kg per year, rivets costing Rs.6 per kg. If the cost of placing an order is Rs.60 and the carrying cost of the inventory is 30 percent per annum, the Economic Order Quality will be

(A) 1000 × √2 kg

(B) 1000 kg

(D) 200 √5 kg

Answer B

43. The arrival rate of customers at a service window of a cinema hall follows a probability distribution with a mean rate of 45 per hour. If the service rate of the clerk follows Poisson distribution, with a mean of 60 per hours, what is the probability of having no customer in the system?

(A) 0.75

(B) 0.60

(D) 0.45

Answer C

44. From which of the following can retailers immediately determine, how many packets they should stock each day to maximize the profit?

(i) Expected profit from each stocking action

(ii) Expected loss from each stocking action.

(iii) Conditional-profit table

Codes :

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(B) (i) and (ii)

(D) (i) and (iii)

Answer B

45. (i) In PERT, it is assumed that the activity times follow the beta distribution.

(ii) In CPM, two time and cost estimates are made for each activity, which are

called the optimistic and pessimistic estimates.

(iii) Time is the only variable used in PERT.

(iv) While in PERT the emphasis is on event, in CPM the emphasis is on activity.

(A) All of the above are true.

(B) While (i) and (ii) are false, (iii) and (iv) are true.

(D) All the above are false.

Answer C

46. If a = 4 and b = 2 for a particular estimating line with one independent variable,

and the value of the independent variable is 2, what will be the value of the

dependent variable?

(A) –1

(B) 0

(D) 10

Answer C

47. For estimating an equation to be a perfect estimator of the dependent variable,

which of the following is true?

(i) The standard error of the estimate is zero.

(ii) All the data points are on the regression line.

(iii) The co-efficient of determination is (–1).

Codes :

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (ii) and (iii) only

(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Answer A

48. The ‘F’ ratio contains:

(i) Two estimates of the population variance

(ii) Two estimates of the population mean

(iii) One estimate of the population mean and one estimate of the population variance

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(B) (i) and (ii)

(D) (iii) only

Answer C

49. From the following statements, identify the correct answer:

Statement I : The chi-square and ‘t’ distributions are always symmetrical distributions.

Statement II : If we have large enough sample sizes, the assumption that “the samples

are drawn from a normal population” can be discarded with ANOVA

testing.

Codes:

(A) Both the Statements I and II are correct.

(B) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is wrong.

(D) Both the Statements I and II are wrong.

Answer C

50. Arrange the following steps involved in the ‘information system development cycle’

in the ascending order:

(i) Installation of the system

(ii) Operations of the system

(iii) Definition and objectives of the system

(iv) Review and evaluation

(v) Development of the system

Codes:

(A) (i), (iii), (v), (iv), (ii)

(B) (iii), (i), (v), (ii), (iv)

(D) (iii), (v), (i), (ii), (iv)

Answer D

51. Match the items given in List – I with the most suitable items in List – II :

List – I List – II

a. Wireless networking i. Ring

b. Network devices ii. Infrared

c. Network models iii. Network Repeater

d. Network Topology iv. TCP/IP 4 layered protocol

Codes:

a b c d

(A) ii i iii iv

(B) iv ii iii i

(D) iii iv I ii

Answer C

52. Which one is not the item to be necessarily included in the report on Corporate

Governance in the annual report of listed companies?

(A) Board of Directors

(B) Audit Committee

(D) All of the above

Answer D

53. According to the BCG matrix, and given your knowledge of the technological

environment, a business unit that manufactures typewriters would be an example

of a

(A) Cash cow

(B) Dog

(D) Star

Answer B

54. Assertion (A) : Vertical integration is considered as a growth strategy because the

firms operations are expanded beyond primary business.

Reasoning (R) : Vertical integration is the mixed empirical result to ascertain

whether the strategy helps or hinders the performances.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the right explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the right explanation of (A).

(D) (R) is correct, but (A) is not correct.

Answer B

55. In the context of strategic management, a stakeholder can be defined as:

(A) An individual or a group have financial interest in the organisation.

(B) An external individual or a group that is able to impose constraints on the

organisation.

the organisation.

(D) An individual or group with an interest in the organizations activities and who

seeks to influence them.

Answer D

56. What are the stages 2, 3 and 4 of the active strategic process?

(A) Generate process, select strategy, implement strategy

(B) Strategy selection, strategy implementation, strategy control

(D) Appraisal of strength and weaknesses, choice of strategic direction, strategic

Implementation

Answer B

57. The first step in the development of a business mission is

(A) A SWOT analysis

(B) Goal formulation

(D) Strategy Formulation

Answer A

58. At which level in the company should market oriented strategic planning begin?

(A) Corporate level

(B) Functional level

(D) Strategic business limit

Answer A

59. Which of the following technique stimulates people to greater creativity by meeting

with others and participating in organised group experiences?

(A) Brain writing

(B) Gordon method

(D) Big-dream approach

Answer C

60. Match the following:

List – I List – II

(Types of Qualities) (Features)

a. Physical i. Sharp memory

b. Ethical ii. Coordinator

c. Social iii. Personality

d. Mental iv. Character

Codes:

a b c d

(A) ii i iii iv

(B) iii iv ii i

(D) iii iv i ii

Answer B

61. Which of the following Bill was introduced in the Lok Sabha in 1985, with the

objective to make a special provision to secure timely detection of sick and

potentially sick companies and for setting up a board of experts for speedy

determination of the preventive ameliorative and remedial measures?

(A) The Industrial Reconstruction Bank of India Bill

(B) NABARD Bill

(D) None of the above

Answer C

62. Indicate the person who is considered as pioneer in the herbal beauty care in India

and has achieved unprecedented international acclaim for her application of

Ayurveda (the ancient Indian ‘Science of Life’ based on herbal remedies) in

cosmetology and trichology:

(A) Sumati Morarji

(B) Shahnaz Hussain

(D) Neena Malhotra

Answer B

63. Which of the following items is not included in project cost estimation of a new

business?

(A) Preference Dividend

(B) Margin money for working capital

(D) Pre-operative expenses

Answer A

64. Which of the following is the main function of State Financial Corporations?

(A) Provide short-term finance to large-sized industrial units

(B) Provide long-term finance to small and medium sized industrial units.

reports, conducting industrial potential surveys, etc.

(D) Develop industrial estates for providing land to a building Entrepreneurs.

Answer B

65. Which one of them was not a Corporate Fraud?

(A) Satyam Case

(B) Abdul Karim Telgi case

(D) Ketan Parikh

Answer B

66. The first social audit in India to evaluate role and success of company towards

moral responsibility of employees conducted by

(A) Birla Group (BALCO)

(B) Wipro

(D) TISCO

Answer D

67. SEBI asked entire group “A” companies to submit a corporate governance report in

addition to their annual reports from the date:

(A) April 1, 2001

(B) April 1, 2000

(D) April 1, 2008

Answer A

68. The practice of willingly hiding relevant information by being secretive and deceitful

known as _________, occur when organization punishes individual who is open

and honest and rewards the one who has unethical behaviour.

(A) ‘Window Dressing’

(B) ‘Counter Norms’

(D) None of the above

Answer C

69. Corporate Governance Committee appointed on May 7, 1999 was headed by

(A) Aditya Birla

(B) Kumar Mangalam Birla

(D) J.S. Mehta

Answer B

70. The term ‘Corporate Governance’ comes closest to

(A) Corporate Management

(B) Corporate Administration

(D) Corporate System

Answer D

71. The highest amount of FDI in India comes from

(A) Japan

(B) U.S.A.

(D) Mauritius

Answer D

72. ‘Free trade’ means

(i) Opening different sectors for the FDI in flow

(ii) Greater competition which, in turn, enhances efficiency

(iii) Development of new industries

(iv) Incentives for Imports and Exports

Codes:

(A) All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(B) Both (i) and (ii)

(D) Only (i)

Answer C

73. Statement I : ‘Free trade’ leads to specialisation and thereby to increased output.

Statement II : Import restrictions are both long term and short term measures of

balances of payment adjustments.

Codes:

(A) Statement I is true, but II is false.

(B) Statement II is true, but I is false.

(D) Both the statements I and II are true.

Answer A

74. In terms of the increasing competitions, among the MNCs, rank the followings in the

ascending order:

(i) Mobile Technology

(ii) Business Intelligence

(iii) Cloud Computing

(iv) Social Media

(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(B) (iv), (iii), (ii) and (i)

(D) (i), (ii), (iv) and (iii)

Answer B

75. Statement I : ‘Trade creation’ and ‘Trade Diversion’ both, have welfare implications.

Statement II : Regional partners should be competitive, and not complementary, for the

purpose of the most efficient use of economic resources within a

Customs Union.

Codes:

(A) Statement I is true, but statement II is false.

(B) Statement II is true, but statement I is false.

(D) Both the statements I and II are false.

Answer C

source: www.ugcnetonline.in

UGC NET Management study material

Pages

Tuesday, October 7, 2014

UGC NET Management June 2014 Paper III solved

3 comments:

Labels

About Me