1. In case a decrease in price of a
commodity results in an increase in its demand on a negatively sloping demand
curve, it is called
(A) An
increase in demand
(B) An
increase in quantity demanded
(C) Law of
demand
(D) Any of the
above
Answer B
2.
Production function is not based on the assumption of the
(A)
Substitutability of inputs
(B)
Complementarity of inputs
(C)
Marketability of products
(D)
Specificity of inputs
Answer C
3.
Match the items of the following two lists and indicate the correct
code :
List – I
List – II
a. Trade
channel discounts i.
Oligopoly pricing
b. Tie-up
sales
ii. Locational price
differentials
c. Price being
nonresponsive to changes in
iii. Differential pricing
demand costs
d.
Basing-point pricing
iv. Product-line pricing
Codes :
a b c
d
(A) iv
ii iii i
(B) iii
iv i ii
(C) ii
i iv iii
(D) I
iii ii iv
Answer B
4.
Indicate the correct code matching the items in List – I with
those in List – II as follows :
List – I
List – II
a. Competitive
parity in advertising
i. Variations in advertising
b. Promotional
elasticity of product
ii. Advertising scheduling
c. Optimal
promotion mix iii.
Advertising expenditure
d. Pulsing
advertising iv.
Marginal equivalence of dvertising
media outlay
Codes
:
a b
c d
(A) ii iii i iv
(B) iii i iv
ii
(C) i iv
ii iii
(D) iv ii iii
i
Answer
B
5.
Macroeconomics basically concerns with which of following in an economy?
(A) Industry,
Trade and Commerce
(B)
Agriculture, Industry & Trade
(C)
Employment, Inflation & Growth
(D)
Population, Income and Economic Planning
Answer
C
6.
The competition commission of India has no rule in regulating
which of the following?
(A)
Restrictive Trade Agreements
(B) Abuse of
Market Power
(C) Unfair
Trade Practices
(D) Mergers and Acquisitions
Answer C
7.
The ability to understand, communicate with, motivate and support
other people, both individually and in groups, defines which of the following
management skills?
(A) Hard
Skills
(B) Soft
Skills
(C) Conceptual
Skills
(D) Political
Skills
Answer B
8.
As __________, managers receive a wide variety of information and
serve as the nerve centers of internal and external information of the
organization.
(A) Leaders
(B) Monitors
(C)
Distribution handlers
(D) Resource
allocators
Answer B
9.
Which one is the correct combination?
(A) Theory of
Conditioning – Bernara
(B) Operant
Conditioning Theory – B.F. Skinner
(C) Stimulus
Response Theory – Hoodman
(D) Theory of
Associates – Marshall
Answer B
10.
Match the following:
List – I
List – II
a. Evaluative
statements or judgments
i. Attitudes
concerning objects, people or events
b. The opinion
or belief segment of
ii. Cognitive Component
an attitude
c. The
emotional or feeling segment iii. Affective
Component
of an
attitude
d. An
intention to behave in a certain way iv. Behavioural component
towards someone or something
Codes
:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iv iii
ii i
(C) iv ii iii i
(D) i iii ii iv
Answer A
11.
As per Rorsach value survey, which of the following is not an
instrumental value?
(A) Ambitious
(B)
Imagination
(C) Wise
(D) Capable
Answer C
12.
When we judge someone on the basis of our perception of the group
to which
he or she belongs, we are using the
shortcut, called ________
(A) Selective
Perceptive
(B) Halo
effect
(C) Contrast
effect
(D)
Stereotyping
Answer D
13.
Performance = f (m, a, e). In this expression ‘e’ stands for
(A) Efficiency
(B)
Effectiveness
(C) Environment
(D)
Entrepreneurship
Answer C
14.
Selecting a representative sample of jobs, preparing job
descriptions for
them, comparing them on the basis of the
information in the job descriptions
and placing them in order of their
perceived importance represents which of
the following job evaluation methods?
(A) Job
grading method
(B) Job
ranking method
(C) Points
rating method
(D) Guide chart method
Answer B
15.
Match the following:
List – I
List – II
a. A pay plan
in which most employees are
i. Elitest pay system
part of the same compensation system.
b. A pay plan
in which different compensation
ii. Skill based pay
systems are established for employees or
groups at different organizational levels.
c. A pay
system in which employees are iii. Egalitarian pay system
paid on the basis of the jobs they can do.
d. The
perceived fairness of the pay structure iv. Internal equity
within a firm.
Codes
:
a b c d
(A) i ii
iii iv
(B) iii i
ii iv
(C) i iii ii iv
(D) iii ii i iv
Answer B
16.
________ of an employee is the process of evaluating the employee performance
of the job in terms of the requirements of the job.
(A) Merit
rating
(B) Job
Evaluation
(C) Job
Analysis
(D)
Performance Appraisal
Answer A
17.
HRM is regarded as old wine in a new bottle. This idea was
formulated by
(A) Armstrong
(B) Guest
(C) Storey
(D) Peter
Drucker
Answer A
18.
The space for every worker employed on the factory under the Factories
Act, 1948 should
be atleast
(A) 9.9 cubic
metre
(B) 10.2 cubic
metre
(C) 13.2 cubic
metre
(D) 14.2 cubic
metre
Answer D
19.
Which of the following combinations is correct?
(A) The
practice of replacing narrowly defined job descriptions
with broader categories of related jobs –
Job Hierarchy
(B) A firm’s decision
to pay above, below or at the
market rate for its jobs – Pay Grades
(C) Groups of
jobs that are paid within the same pay
range – Pay Policy
(D) A job that
is similar or comparable in
content across firms – Key job
Answer D
20.
A technique for resolving conflict in which the parties agree to
have a
neutral third
party hear the dispute and make a decision is called
(A)
Negotiation
(B)
Arbitration
(C) Smoothing
(D) Collective
Bargaining
Answer B
21.
Identify the major actor(s) of industrial relation, from the following:
(A) Employees
(B) Unions
(C) Government
(D) All of the above
Answer D
22.
The yield to maturity of a bond is the interest rate
(A) That makes
the total cash flows receivable from owning the
bond equal to the price of the bond.
(B) That makes
the present value of cash flows receivable from
owning the bond equal to the price of the
bond.
(C) That makes
cash flows receivable from the bond till
the first call equal to the face value of
the bond.
(D) None of
the above
Answer B
23.
Match the correct options for the following capital budgeting
appraisal criteria :
List – I List – II
a. The
criterion based on the cash i. Internal Rate of
Return
flows of a limited period.
b. The
criterion based on profit ii. Pay-back
Method
over life of the project.
c. The
criterion that considers cash iii. Accounting Rate
of Return
flows over the life of project which
considered the time value of money.
d. The
criterion that derives the
iv. Net Present Value
outcomes in terms of the rate of
return considering the cash flows
over the life of project with the
time value of money.
Codes
:
a
b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii
iii iv i
(C) iii
iv i ii
(D) iv iii
ii i
Answer B
24.
Match the following theories with reference to the capital
structure theories:
List – I List
– II
a. Traditional
approach i.
Highly profitable companies
generally use little debt.
b. Trade-off Theory ii. Optimal
capital structure exists
c. Packing order
theory iii.
Optimal debt equity ratio of profitable firm
that has stable, tangible assets would be
higher than the optimal debt-equity ratio
of unprofitable firm.
Codes
:
a b c
(A) i ii
iii
(B) ii iii
i
(C) iii
i ii
(D) I iii
ii
Answer B
25.
Lintner Model shows that the current dividend depends
(A) partly on
current earnings and partly on the previous year’s dividend.
(B) partly on
market rate of return and partly on the expected rate of return.
(C) partly on
current earnings and partly on the expected rate of return.
(D) partly on
previous year’s dividend and partly on the market rate of return.
Answer
A
26.
“The difference between the forward rate and the spot rate is just
enough
to offset the difference between the interest
rate in the two currencies.”
This concept is known as
(A) Purchasing
power parity
(B) Fisher effect
(C) Interest
rate parity
(D) International Fisher effect
Answer C
27.
Match the following terms:
List – I
List – II
a. Forward
contract
i. An agreement between two parties
to exchange one set of cash flows for
another
b. Futures contract ii. A standardized
contract
c. Swap iii.
The seller of an instrument
grants the buyer the right, but not the
obligation, to buy or sell some asset at
a pre-determined price during the
specified
period
d. Options
iv. A tailor made contract
Codes
:
a
b c d
(A) i
iii ii
iv
(B) ii iv iii
i
(C) iii i
iv ii
(D) iv ii
i iii
Answer D
28.
An analysis of percentage financial statement where all the
Balance sheet items
are divided by the total assets and all
the income statement items are divided by
net sales or revenue is known as
(A) Index
Analysis
(B) Trend
Analysis
(C) Ration
Analysis
(D) Common
size Analysis
Answer D
29.
A company collecting cash from customers within two days and paying
to suppliers
in 35 days, will have
(A) Negative
operating cycle
(B) Negative
cash cycle
(C) Both (A)
and (B)
(D) None of
(A) or (B)
Answer B
30.
Match the following expressions:
List – I List
– II
a. Venture capital i.
Emphasises on corporate governance
b. Private equity ii.
Issue of securities to a select group
of persons not
exceeding 49
c. Private placement iii.
Emphasises on Management capability
Codes :
a b
c
(A) i ii iii
(B) ii
iii i
(C) iii i
ii
(D) i iii ii
Answer C
31.
The fundamental determinant of a person’s wants and behaviour is
(A) Perception
(B)
Personality
(C) Culture
(D) Social
Group
Answer C
32.
Consider the following statements:
(1) Exclusive
dealing amounts to a restrictive agreement under the Competition
Act, 2002.
(2) The rate
of growth in the service sector in India is highest among all the other
sectors of economy.
(3) Predatory
pricing is not regulated under any law.
(4) A company
using sales force promotion and trade promotion is using “Pull” strategy.
Indicate the correct answer out of the following:
(A) While
statements (1) and (2) are true, (3) and (4) are not.
(B) While
statements (1) and (3) are true, rest are not.
(C) While
statement (2) is true, others are not.
(D) All the statements are true
Answer A
33.
Personal influence is most important at the _____ stage of the
consumer
adoption process.
(A) Adoption
(B) Awareness
(C) Evaluation
(D) Trial
Answer C
34.
The price setting method most closely corresponding of the concept
of product
positioning is
(A) Cost-plus
pricing
(B)
Psychological pricing
(C) Going-rate
pricing
(D)
Perceived-value pricing
Answer D
35.
Use of mail, telephone and other non-personal contact tools to
communicate with, or solicit a response from, specific customers and prospects
is called
(A)
Advertising
(B) Direct
Marketing
(C) Sales
Promotion
(D) Public
Relations
Answer B
36.
_________ marketing describes the employees’ skills in serving the
clients.
(A) External
(B)
Interactive
(C) Internal
(D)
Relationship
Answer B
37.
Match the two sets of concepts:
List – I
List – II
i. Evaluation
of Alternatives
a. Perception
ii.
Post-purchase behavior b. Cognitive
dissonance
iii. Selective
distortion
c. Life style
iv.
Psychographic segmentation
d. Expectancy value model
Codes
:
a b c d
(A) i
ii iii iv
(B) ii
iii iv i
(C) iii
ii iv i
(D) iv
iii ii i
Answer C
38.
Which of the following determinants of service quality is the most
important?
(A) Empathy
(B)
Reliability
(C)
Responsiveness
(D)
Tangibility
Answer B
39.
While developing customer loyalty programmes, database is often
not helpful in
(A)
Identifying prospective customers
(B) Deepening
customer loyalty
(C) Avoiding
serious customer mistakes
(D) Creating
consumer associations
Answer D
40.
The problem caused by a redundant constraint is that
(A) The problem
shall have no feasible solution.
(B) The
problem shall have abounded solution.
(C) The
redundant constraint can never be satisfied.
(D) None of
the above.
Answer D
41.
The upper control limit for an R-chart is
_
(A) RD3
_
(B) RD4
_
(C) R(1 + 3d3
/ (d2√n
))
_
_
(D) X+A2R
Answer B
42.
A company uses rivets at a rate of 15,000 kg per year, rivets
costing Rs.6 per kg. If the
cost of placing an order is Rs.60
and the carrying cost of the inventory is
30 percent per annum, the Economic Order Quality will be
(A) 1000 × √2
kg
(B) 1000 kg
(C) 100 √10 kg
(D) 200 √5 kg
Answer B
43.
The arrival rate of customers at a service window of a cinema hall
follows a probability distribution with a mean rate of 45 per hour. If the
service rate of the clerk follows Poisson distribution, with a mean of 60 per
hours, what is the probability of having no customer in the system?
(A) 0.75
(B) 0.60
(C) 0.25
(D) 0.45
Answer C
44.
From which of the following can retailers immediately determine,
how many packets they should stock each day to maximize the profit?
(i) Expected
profit from each stocking action
(ii) Expected
loss from each stocking action.
(iii)
Conditional-profit table
Codes
:
(A) (i), (ii)
and (iii)
(B) (i) and
(ii)
(C) (ii) and
(iii)
(D) (i) and
(iii)
Answer B
45.
(i) In PERT, it is assumed that the activity times follow the beta
distribution.
(ii) In CPM, two time and cost estimates
are made for each activity, which are
called the optimistic and
pessimistic estimates.
(iii) Time is the only variable used in
PERT.
(iv) While in PERT the emphasis is on
event, in CPM the emphasis is on activity.
(A) All of the
above are true.
(B) While (i)
and (ii) are false, (iii) and (iv) are true.
(C) Only (i),
(iii) and (iv) are true.
(D) All the
above are false.
Answer C
46.
If a = 4 and b = 2 for a particular estimating line with one
independent variable,
and the value of the independent variable
is 2, what will be the value of the
dependent variable?
(A) –1
(B) 0
(C) 8
(D) 10
Answer C
47.
For estimating an equation to be a perfect estimator of the
dependent variable,
which of the following is true?
(i) The
standard error of the estimate is zero.
(ii) All the
data points are on the regression line.
(iii) The
co-efficient of determination is (–1).
Codes
:
(A) (i) and
(ii) only
(B) (ii) and
(iii) only
(C) (i) and
(iii) only
(D) (i), (ii)
and (iii)
Answer A
48.
The ‘F’ ratio contains:
(i) Two
estimates of the population variance
(ii) Two
estimates of the population mean
(iii) One
estimate of the population mean and one estimate of the population variance
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii)
and (iii)
(B) (i) and
(ii)
(C) (i) only
(D) (iii) only
Answer C
49.
From the following statements, identify the correct answer:
Statement
I : The chi-square and ‘t’ distributions are
always symmetrical distributions.
Statement
II : If we have large enough sample sizes, the assumption
that “the samples
are drawn from a normal
population” can be discarded with ANOVA
testing.
Codes:
(A) Both the
Statements I and II are correct.
(B) Statement
I is correct, but Statement II is wrong.
(C) Statement
II is correct, but Statement I is wrong.
(D) Both the
Statements I and II are wrong.
Answer C
50.
Arrange the following steps involved in the ‘information system development
cycle’
in the ascending order:
(i)
Installation of the system
(ii)
Operations of the system
(iii)
Definition and objectives of the system
(iv) Review
and evaluation
(v)
Development of the system
Codes:
(A) (i),
(iii), (v), (iv), (ii)
(B) (iii),
(i), (v), (ii), (iv)
(C) (v), (i),
(iii), (iv), (ii)
(D) (iii),
(v), (i), (ii), (iv)
Answer D
51.
Match the items given in List – I with the most suitable items in
List – II :
List – I List
– II
a. Wireless networking i. Ring
b. Network devices ii. Infrared
c. Network models iii.
Network Repeater
d. Network Topology iv. TCP/IP 4
layered protocol
Codes:
a b
c d
(A) ii i iii iv
(B) iv ii
iii i
(C) ii iii iv i
(D) iii iv
I ii
Answer C
52.
Which one is not the item to be necessarily included in the report
on Corporate
Governance in the annual report of listed
companies?
(A) Board of
Directors
(B) Audit
Committee
(C)
Shareholders’ Committee
(D) All of the
above
Answer D
53.
According to the BCG matrix, and given your knowledge of the technological
environment, a business unit that manufactures
typewriters would be an example
of a
(A) Cash cow
(B) Dog
(C) Question
mark
(D) Star
Answer B
54.
Assertion (A) : Vertical integration is considered as a
growth strategy because the
firms
operations are expanded beyond primary business.
Reasoning (R) : Vertical
integration is the mixed empirical result to ascertain
whether the
strategy helps or hinders the performances.
Codes:
(A) Both (A)
and (R) are correct, and (R) is the right explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A)
and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the right explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is
correct, but (R) is not correct.
(D) (R) is
correct, but (A) is not correct.
Answer B
55.
In the context of strategic management, a stakeholder can be
defined as:
(A) An
individual or a group have financial interest in the organisation.
(B) An
external individual or a group that is able to impose constraints on the
organisation.
(C) An
internal group or individual that is able to influence strategic direction of
the organisation.
(D) An
individual or group with an interest in the organizations activities and who
seeks to influence them.
Answer D
56.
What are the stages 2, 3 and 4 of the active strategic process?
(A) Generate
process, select strategy, implement strategy
(B) Strategy
selection, strategy implementation, strategy control
(C) Deliberate
strategy, emergent strategy, realized strategy
(D) Appraisal
of strength and weaknesses, choice of strategic direction, strategic
Implementation
Answer B
57.
The first step in the development of a business mission is
(A) A SWOT
analysis
(B) Goal
formulation
(C) Marketing
Research
(D) Strategy Formulation
Answer A
58.
At which level in the company should market oriented strategic
planning begin?
(A) Corporate
level
(B) Functional
level
(C) Marketing
department level
(D) Strategic
business limit
Answer A
59.
Which of the following technique stimulates people to greater
creativity by meeting
with others and participating in
organised group experiences?
(A) Brain
writing
(B) Gordon
method
(C) Brain
storming session
(D) Big-dream
approach
Answer C
60.
Match the following:
List – I
List – II
(Types
of Qualities)
(Features)
a.
Physical
i. Sharp memory
b. Ethical
ii. Coordinator
c. Social
iii. Personality
d. Mental
iv. Character
Codes:
a
b c d
(A) ii i iii
iv
(B) iii iv
ii i
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) iii
iv i ii
Answer B
61.
Which of the following Bill was introduced in the Lok Sabha in
1985, with the
objective to make a special provision to
secure timely detection of sick and
potentially sick companies and for
setting up a board of experts for speedy
determination of the preventive
ameliorative and remedial measures?
(A) The
Industrial Reconstruction Bank of India Bill
(B) NABARD
Bill
(C) The Sick
Industrial Companies (special provisions) Bill
(D) None of
the above
Answer C
62.
Indicate the person who is considered as pioneer in the herbal
beauty care in India
and has achieved unprecedented
international acclaim for her application of
Ayurveda (the ancient Indian ‘Science of
Life’ based on herbal remedies) in
cosmetology and trichology:
(A) Sumati
Morarji
(B) Shahnaz
Hussain
(C) Yamutai
Kirloskar
(D) Neena
Malhotra
Answer B
63.
Which of the following items is not included in project cost
estimation of a new
business?
(A) Preference
Dividend
(B) Margin
money for working capital
(C)
Anticipated initial losses
(D)
Pre-operative expenses
Answer A
64.
Which of the following is the main function of State Financial
Corporations?
(A) Provide
short-term finance to large-sized industrial units
(B) Provide
long-term finance to small and medium sized industrial units.
(C) Undertake
variety of promotional activities, like preparation of feasibility
reports, conducting industrial potential
surveys, etc.
(D) Develop
industrial estates for providing land to a building Entrepreneurs.
Answer B
65.
Which one of them was not a Corporate Fraud?
(A) Satyam
Case
(B) Abdul
Karim Telgi case
(C) Saradha
Chit Fund
(D) Ketan
Parikh
Answer B
66.
The first social audit in India to evaluate role and success of
company towards
moral responsibility of employees
conducted by
(A) Birla
Group (BALCO)
(B) Wipro
(C) Infosys
(D) TISCO
Answer D
67.
SEBI asked entire group “A” companies to submit a corporate
governance report in
addition to their annual reports from the
date:
(A) April 1,
2001
(B) April 1,
2000
(C) January
13, 2006
(D) April 1,
2008
Answer A
68.
The practice of willingly hiding relevant information by being
secretive and deceitful
known as _________, occur when
organization punishes individual who is open
and honest and rewards the one who has
unethical behaviour.
(A) ‘Window
Dressing’
(B) ‘Counter
Norms’
(C)
‘Stone-walling’
(D) None of the above
Answer C
69.
Corporate Governance Committee appointed on May 7, 1999 was headed
by
(A) Aditya
Birla
(B) Kumar
Mangalam Birla
(C) Rajendar
Sachar
(D) J.S. Mehta
Answer B
70.
The term ‘Corporate Governance’ comes closest to
(A) Corporate
Management
(B) Corporate
Administration
(C) Corporate
Planning
(D) Corporate
System
Answer D
71.
The highest amount of FDI in India comes from
(A) Japan
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Indonesia
(D) Mauritius
Answer D
72.
‘Free trade’ means
(i) Opening
different sectors for the FDI in flow
(ii) Greater
competition which, in turn, enhances efficiency
(iii)
Development of new industries
(iv) Incentives
for Imports and Exports
Codes:
(A) All (i),
(ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) Both (i)
and (ii)
(C) Only (ii)
(D) Only (i)
Answer C
73.
Statement I : ‘Free trade’ leads to specialisation and
thereby to increased output.
Statement
II : Import restrictions are both long term and
short term measures of
balances of payment adjustments.
Codes:
(A) Statement
I is true, but II is false.
(B) Statement
II is true, but I is false.
(C) Both the
statements I and II are false.
(D) Both the
statements I and II are true.
Answer A
74.
In terms of the increasing competitions, among the MNCs, rank the
followings in the
ascending order:
(i) Mobile
Technology
(ii) Business
Intelligence
(iii) Cloud
Computing
(iv) Social
Media
(A) (i), (ii),
(iii) and (iv)
(B) (iv),
(iii), (ii) and (i)
(C) (iv), (i),
(ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii),
(iv) and (iii)
Answer B
75.
Statement I : ‘Trade creation’ and ‘Trade Diversion’ both, have
welfare implications.
Statement
II : Regional partners should be competitive, and
not complementary, for the
purpose of the most
efficient use of economic resources within a
Customs Union.
Codes:
(A) Statement
I is true, but statement II is false.
(B) Statement
II is true, but statement I is false.
(C) Both the
statements I and II are true.
(D) Both the
statements I and II are false.
Answer C
source: www.ugcnetonline.in
source: www.ugcnetonline.in
Thnx to all your efforts for providing these past papers along with solutions.
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