Tuesday, October 7, 2014

UGC NET Management June 2014 Paper III solved




 1. In case a decrease in price of a commodity results in an increase in its demand on a negatively sloping demand curve, it is called

(A) An increase in demand
(B) An increase in quantity demanded
(C) Law of demand
(D) Any of the above

Answer B

2. Production function is not based on the assumption of the

(A) Substitutability of inputs
(B) Complementarity of inputs
(C) Marketability of products
(D) Specificity of inputs

Answer C

3. Match the items of the following two lists and indicate the correct code :

       List – I                                                                     List – II
a. Trade channel discounts                                        i. Oligopoly pricing
b. Tie-up sales                                                           ii. Locational price differentials
c. Price being nonresponsive to changes in              iii. Differential pricing
    demand costs
d. Basing-point pricing                                               iv. Product-line pricing

  Codes :
        a         b        c        d
(A)   iv         ii        iii         i
(B)   iii         iv        i         ii
(C)   ii          i         iv       iii
(D)    I         iii        ii        iv

Answer B

4. Indicate the correct code matching the items in List – I with those in List – II as follows :
         List – I                                                                                    List – II
a. Competitive parity in advertising                         i. Variations in advertising
b. Promotional elasticity of product                         ii. Advertising scheduling
c. Optimal promotion mix                                        iii. Advertising expenditure
d. Pulsing advertising                                              iv. Marginal equivalence of dvertising                                 
                                                                                     media outlay
Codes :
                                                                                         
        a       b       c       d
(A)   ii       iii        i       iv
(B)   iii       i        iv       ii
(C)   i       iv        ii       iii
(D)   iv      ii        iii       i

Answer B

5. Macroeconomics basically concerns with which of following in an economy?

(A) Industry, Trade and Commerce
(B) Agriculture, Industry & Trade
(C) Employment, Inflation & Growth
(D) Population, Income and Economic Planning

Answer C

6. The competition commission of India has no rule in regulating which of the following?

(A) Restrictive Trade Agreements
(B) Abuse of Market Power
(C) Unfair Trade Practices
(D) Mergers and Acquisitions

Answer C

7. The ability to understand, communicate with, motivate and support other people, both individually and in groups, defines which of the following management skills?

(A) Hard Skills
(B) Soft Skills
(C) Conceptual Skills
(D) Political Skills

Answer B

8. As __________, managers receive a wide variety of information and serve as the nerve centers of internal and external information of the organization.

(A) Leaders
(B) Monitors
(C) Distribution handlers
(D) Resource allocators

Answer B

9. Which one is the correct combination?

(A) Theory of Conditioning – Bernara
(B) Operant Conditioning Theory – B.F. Skinner
(C) Stimulus Response Theory – Hoodman
(D) Theory of Associates – Marshall

Answer B

10. Match the following:

           List – I                                                                      List – II
a. Evaluative statements or judgments                       i. Attitudes
    concerning objects, people or events
b. The opinion or belief segment of                            ii. Cognitive Component
    an attitude
c. The emotional or feeling segment                          iii. Affective Component
    of an attitude
d. An intention to behave in a certain way                 iv. Behavioural component
    towards someone or something

Codes :

         a        b        c        d
(A)    i         ii         iii        iv
(B)    iv       iii         ii         i
(C)    iv       ii         iii        i
(D)    i        iii         ii         iv

Answer A

11. As per Rorsach value survey, which of the following is not an instrumental value?

(A) Ambitious
(B) Imagination
(C) Wise
(D) Capable

Answer C

12. When we judge someone on the basis of our perception of the group to which
      he or she belongs, we are using the shortcut, called ________

(A) Selective Perceptive
(B) Halo effect
(C) Contrast effect
(D) Stereotyping

Answer D

13. Performance = f (m, a, e). In this expression ‘e’ stands for

(A) Efficiency
(B) Effectiveness
(C) Environment
(D) Entrepreneurship

Answer C

14. Selecting a representative sample of jobs, preparing job descriptions for
      them, comparing them on the basis of the information in the job descriptions
      and placing them in order of their perceived importance represents which of
      the following job evaluation methods?

(A) Job grading method
(B) Job ranking method
(C) Points rating method
(D) Guide chart method

Answer B

15. Match the following:

          List – I                                                                      List – II
a. A pay plan in which most employees are                i. Elitest pay system
    part of the same compensation system.
b. A pay plan in which different compensation            ii. Skill based pay
    systems are established for employees or
    groups at different organizational levels.
c. A pay system in which employees are                    iii. Egalitarian pay system
    paid on the basis of the jobs they can do.         
d. The perceived fairness of the pay structure            iv. Internal equity
     within a firm.

Codes :

        a        b        c        d
(A)    i        ii         iii       iv
(B)   iii        i         ii        iv
(C)    i        iii        ii        iv
(D)   iii       ii          i        iv


Answer B

16. ________ of an employee is the process of evaluating the employee performance of the job in terms of the requirements of the job.

(A) Merit rating
(B) Job Evaluation
(C) Job Analysis
(D) Performance Appraisal

Answer A

17. HRM is regarded as old wine in a new bottle. This idea was formulated by

(A) Armstrong
(B) Guest
(C) Storey
(D) Peter Drucker

Answer A

18. The space for every worker employed on the factory under the Factories Act, 1948 should
      be atleast

(A) 9.9 cubic metre
(B) 10.2 cubic metre
(C) 13.2 cubic metre
(D) 14.2 cubic metre

Answer D

19. Which of the following combinations is correct?

(A) The practice of replacing narrowly defined job descriptions
      with broader categories of related jobs – Job Hierarchy
(B) A firm’s decision to pay above, below or at the
      market rate for its jobs – Pay Grades
(C) Groups of jobs that are paid within the same pay
      range – Pay Policy
(D) A job that is similar or comparable in
      content across firms – Key job

Answer D

20. A technique for resolving conflict in which the parties agree to have a
neutral third party hear the dispute and make a decision is called

(A) Negotiation
(B) Arbitration
(C) Smoothing
(D) Collective Bargaining

Answer B

21. Identify the major actor(s) of industrial relation, from the following:

(A) Employees
(B) Unions
(C) Government
(D) All of the above

Answer D

22. The yield to maturity of a bond is the interest rate

(A) That makes the total cash flows receivable from owning the
      bond equal to the price of the bond.
(B) That makes the present value of cash flows receivable from
      owning the bond equal to the price of the bond.
(C) That makes cash flows receivable from the bond till
      the first call equal to the face value of the bond.
(D) None of the above

Answer B

23. Match the correct options for the following capital budgeting appraisal criteria :

               List – I                                                                     List – II
a. The criterion based on the cash                            i. Internal Rate of Return
    flows of a limited period.
b. The criterion based on profit                                  ii. Pay-back Method
    over life of the project.
c. The criterion that considers cash                           iii. Accounting Rate of Return
    flows over the life of project which
    considered the time value of money.
d. The criterion that derives the                                 iv. Net Present Value
    outcomes in terms of the rate of
    return considering the cash flows
    over the life of project with the
    time value of money.

Codes :


         a         b        c         d
(A)    i          ii        iii         iv
(B)    ii         iii       iv          i
(C)   iii         iv        i          ii
(D)   iv         iii        ii          i

Answer B

24. Match the following theories with reference to the capital structure theories:

        List – I                                                                     List – II
a. Traditional approach                          i. Highly profitable companies
                                                                  generally use little debt.
b. Trade-off Theory                                ii. Optimal capital structure exists
c. Packing order theory                         iii. Optimal debt equity ratio of profitable firm
                                                                  that has stable, tangible assets would be
                                                                  higher than the optimal debt-equity ratio
                                                                  of unprofitable firm.

Codes :

        a        b        c
(A)    i        ii         iii
(B)    ii       iii         i
(C)   iii        i         ii
(D)    I       iii         ii

Answer B

25. Lintner Model shows that the current dividend depends

(A) partly on current earnings and partly on the previous year’s dividend.
(B) partly on market rate of return and partly on the expected rate of return.
(C) partly on current earnings and partly on the expected rate of return.
(D) partly on previous year’s dividend and partly on the market rate of return.

Answer A

26. “The difference between the forward rate and the spot rate is just enough
        to offset the difference between the interest rate in the two currencies.”
       This concept is known as

(A) Purchasing power parity
(B) Fisher effect
(C) Interest rate parity
(D) International Fisher effect

Answer C

27. Match the following terms:

           List – I                                                                 List – II
a. Forward contract                                    i. An agreement between two parties
                                                                      to exchange one set of cash flows for
                                                                      another
b. Futures contract                                     ii. A standardized contract
c. Swap                                                      iii. The seller of an instrument
                                                                        grants the buyer the right, but not the
                                                                        obligation, to buy or sell some asset at
                                                                        a pre-determined price during the
                                                                        specified period
d. Options                                                   iv. A tailor made contract

Codes :

         a        b         c        d
(A)     i        iii        ii         iv
(B)    ii        iv        iii         i
(C)    iii        i         iv        ii
(D)    iv        ii        i         iii

Answer D

28. An analysis of percentage financial statement where all the Balance sheet items
      are divided by the total assets and all the income statement items are divided by
      net sales or revenue is known as

(A) Index Analysis
(B) Trend Analysis
(C) Ration Analysis
(D) Common size Analysis

Answer D

29. A company collecting cash from customers within two days and paying to suppliers
      in 35 days, will have

(A) Negative operating cycle
(B) Negative cash cycle
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of (A) or (B)

Answer B

30. Match the following expressions:

             List – I                                                                List – II
a. Venture capital                                         i. Emphasises on corporate governance
b. Private equity                                           ii. Issue of securities to a select group
                                                                        of persons not exceeding 49
c. Private placement                                    iii. Emphasises on Management capability

  Codes :
         a         b         c
(A)    i          ii         iii
(B)    ii         iii         i
(C)   iii          i         ii
(D)    i         iii         ii

Answer C

31. The fundamental determinant of a person’s wants and behaviour is

(A) Perception
(B) Personality
(C) Culture
(D) Social Group

Answer C

32. Consider the following statements:

(1) Exclusive dealing amounts to a restrictive agreement under the Competition
      Act, 2002.
(2) The rate of growth in the service sector in India is highest among all the other
      sectors of economy.
(3) Predatory pricing is not regulated under any law.
(4) A company using sales force promotion and trade promotion is using “Pull” strategy.
      Indicate the correct answer out of the following:

(A) While statements (1) and (2) are true, (3) and (4) are not.
(B) While statements (1) and (3) are true, rest are not.
(C) While statement (2) is true, others are not.
(D) All the statements are true

Answer A

33. Personal influence is most important at the _____ stage of the consumer
      adoption process.

(A) Adoption
(B) Awareness
(C) Evaluation
(D) Trial

Answer C

34. The price setting method most closely corresponding of the concept of product
      positioning is

(A) Cost-plus pricing
(B) Psychological pricing
(C) Going-rate pricing
(D) Perceived-value pricing

Answer D

35. Use of mail, telephone and other non-personal contact tools to communicate with, or solicit a response from, specific customers and prospects is called

(A) Advertising
(B) Direct Marketing
(C) Sales Promotion
(D) Public Relations

Answer B

36. _________ marketing describes the employees’ skills in serving the clients.

(A) External
(B) Interactive
(C) Internal
(D) Relationship

Answer B

37. Match the two sets of concepts:

            List – I                                                           List – II
i. Evaluation of Alternatives                              a. Perception
ii. Post-purchase behavior                                b. Cognitive dissonance
iii. Selective distortion                                       c. Life style
iv. Psychographic segmentation                       d. Expectancy value model

Codes :

         a         b         c          d
(A)     i         ii         iii          iv
(B)    ii         iii         iv          i
(C)    iii        ii          iv          i
(D)    iv        iii         ii           i

Answer C

38. Which of the following determinants of service quality is the most important?

(A) Empathy
(B) Reliability
(C) Responsiveness
(D) Tangibility

Answer B

39. While developing customer loyalty programmes, database is often not helpful in

(A) Identifying prospective customers
(B) Deepening customer loyalty
(C) Avoiding serious customer mistakes
(D) Creating consumer associations

Answer D

40. The problem caused by a redundant constraint is that

(A) The problem shall have no feasible solution.
(B) The problem shall have abounded solution.
(C) The redundant constraint can never be satisfied.
(D) None of the above.

Answer D

41. The upper control limit for an R-chart is
      _
(A) RD3
      _
(B) RD4
      _
(C) R(1 + 3d3 / (d2n ))
      _       _
(D) X+A2R

Answer B

42. A company uses rivets at a rate of 15,000 kg per year, rivets costing Rs.per kg. If the cost         of placing an order is Rs.60 and the carrying cost of the inventory is 30 percent per annum,         the Economic Order Quality will be

(A) 1000 × √2 kg
(B) 1000 kg
(C) 100 √10 kg
(D) 200 √5 kg

Answer B

43. The arrival rate of customers at a service window of a cinema hall follows a probability               distribution with a mean rate of 45 per hour. If the service rate of the clerk follows Poisson         distribution, with a mean of 60 per hours, what is the probability of having no customer in         the system?

(A) 0.75
(B) 0.60
(C) 0.25
(D) 0.45

Answer C

44. From which of the following can retailers immediately determine, how many packets they should stock each day to maximize the profit?

(i) Expected profit from each stocking action
(ii) Expected loss from each stocking action.
(iii) Conditional-profit table

Codes :

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i) and (iii)

Answer B

45. (i) In PERT, it is assumed that the activity times follow the beta distribution.
      (ii) In CPM, two time and cost estimates are made for each activity, which are
           called the optimistic and pessimistic estimates.
      (iii) Time is the only variable used in PERT.
      (iv) While in PERT the emphasis is on event, in CPM the emphasis is on activity.

(A) All of the above are true.
(B) While (i) and (ii) are false, (iii) and (iv) are true.
(C) Only (i), (iii) and (iv) are true.
(D) All the above are false.

Answer C

46. If a = 4 and b = 2 for a particular estimating line with one independent variable,
      and the value of the independent variable is 2, what will be the value of the
      dependent variable?

(A) –1
(B) 0
(C) 8
(D) 10

Answer C

47. For estimating an equation to be a perfect estimator of the dependent variable,
      which of the following is true?

(i) The standard error of the estimate is zero.
(ii) All the data points are on the regression line.
(iii) The co-efficient of determination is (–1).

Codes :

(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (i) and (iii) only
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Answer A

48. The ‘F’ ratio contains:

(i) Two estimates of the population variance
(ii) Two estimates of the population mean
(iii) One estimate of the population mean and one estimate of the population variance

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (i) only
(D) (iii) only

Answer C

49. From the following statements, identify the correct answer:

Statement I : The chi-square and ‘t’ distributions are always symmetrical distributions.
Statement II : If we have large enough sample sizes, the assumption that “the samples
                        are drawn from a normal population” can be discarded with ANOVA
                        testing.

Codes:

(A) Both the Statements I and II are correct.
(B) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is wrong.
(C) Statement II is correct, but Statement I is wrong.
(D) Both the Statements I and II are wrong.

Answer C

50. Arrange the following steps involved in the ‘information system development cycle’
      in the ascending order:

(i) Installation of the system
(ii) Operations of the system
(iii) Definition and objectives of the system
(iv) Review and evaluation
(v) Development of the system

Codes:

(A) (i), (iii), (v), (iv), (ii)
(B) (iii), (i), (v), (ii), (iv)
(C) (v), (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(D) (iii), (v), (i), (ii), (iv)

Answer D

51. Match the items given in List – I with the most suitable items in List – II :

              List – I                                                 List – II
a. Wireless networking                               i. Ring
b. Network devices                                    ii. Infrared
c. Network models                                    iii. Network Repeater
d. Network Topology                                 iv. TCP/IP 4 layered protocol

Codes:

  

          a         b         c         d
(A)     ii         i          iii         iv
(B)     iv        ii         iii          i
(C)     ii         iii        iv          i
(D)     iii        iv        I           ii

Answer C

52. Which one is not the item to be necessarily included in the report on Corporate
      Governance in the annual report of listed companies?

(A) Board of Directors
(B) Audit Committee
(C) Shareholders’ Committee
(D) All of the above

Answer D

53. According to the BCG matrix, and given your knowledge of the technological
      environment, a business unit that manufactures typewriters would be an example
      of a

(A) Cash cow
(B) Dog
(C) Question mark
(D) Star

Answer B

54. Assertion (A) : Vertical integration is considered as a growth strategy because the
                                 firms operations are expanded beyond primary business.
      Reasoning (R) : Vertical integration is the mixed empirical result to ascertain
                                  whether the strategy helps or hinders the performances.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the right explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the right explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
(D) (R) is correct, but (A) is not correct.

Answer B

55. In the context of strategic management, a stakeholder can be defined as:

(A) An individual or a group have financial interest in the organisation.
(B) An external individual or a group that is able to impose constraints on the
      organisation.
(C) An internal group or individual that is able to influence strategic direction of
      the organisation.
(D) An individual or group with an interest in the organizations activities and who
      seeks to influence them.

Answer D

56. What are the stages 2, 3 and 4 of the active strategic process?

(A) Generate process, select strategy, implement strategy
(B) Strategy selection, strategy implementation, strategy control
(C) Deliberate strategy, emergent strategy, realized strategy
(D) Appraisal of strength and weaknesses, choice of strategic direction, strategic
      Implementation

Answer B

57. The first step in the development of a business mission is

(A) A SWOT analysis
(B) Goal formulation
(C) Marketing Research
(D) Strategy Formulation

Answer A

58. At which level in the company should market oriented strategic planning begin?

(A) Corporate level
(B) Functional level
(C) Marketing department level
(D) Strategic business limit

Answer A

59. Which of the following technique stimulates people to greater creativity by meeting
       with others and participating in organised group experiences?

(A) Brain writing
(B) Gordon method
(C) Brain storming session
(D) Big-dream approach

Answer C

60. Match the following:

      List – I                                                             List – II
(Types of Qualities)                                            (Features)

a. Physical                                                          i. Sharp memory
b. Ethical                                                            ii. Coordinator
c. Social                                                             iii. Personality
d. Mental                                                            iv. Character

Codes:

         a        b        c        d
(A)    ii         i         iii       iv
(B)    iii        iv        ii        i
(C)    ii         i         iv       iii
(D)   iii        iv         i         ii

Answer B

61. Which of the following Bill was introduced in the Lok Sabha in 1985, with the
      objective to make a special provision to secure timely detection of sick and
      potentially sick companies and for setting up a board of experts for speedy
     determination of the preventive ameliorative and remedial measures?

(A) The Industrial Reconstruction Bank of India Bill
(B) NABARD Bill
(C) The Sick Industrial Companies (special provisions) Bill
(D) None of the above

Answer C

62. Indicate the person who is considered as pioneer in the herbal beauty care in India
      and has achieved unprecedented international acclaim for her application of
      Ayurveda (the ancient Indian ‘Science of Life’ based on herbal remedies) in
      cosmetology and trichology:

(A) Sumati Morarji
(B) Shahnaz Hussain
(C) Yamutai Kirloskar
(D) Neena Malhotra

Answer B

63. Which of the following items is not included in project cost estimation of a new
      business?

(A) Preference Dividend
(B) Margin money for working capital
(C) Anticipated initial losses
(D) Pre-operative expenses

Answer A

64. Which of the following is the main function of State Financial Corporations?

(A) Provide short-term finance to large-sized industrial units
(B) Provide long-term finance to small and medium sized industrial units.
(C) Undertake variety of promotional activities, like preparation of feasibility
      reports, conducting industrial potential surveys, etc.
(D) Develop industrial estates for providing land to a building Entrepreneurs.

Answer B

65. Which one of them was not a Corporate Fraud?

(A) Satyam Case
(B) Abdul Karim Telgi case
(C) Saradha Chit Fund
(D) Ketan Parikh

Answer B

66. The first social audit in India to evaluate role and success of company towards
      moral responsibility of employees conducted by

(A) Birla Group (BALCO)
(B) Wipro
(C) Infosys
(D) TISCO

Answer D

67. SEBI asked entire group “A” companies to submit a corporate governance report in
      addition to their annual reports from the date:

(A) April 1, 2001
(B) April 1, 2000
(C) January 13, 2006
(D) April 1, 2008

Answer A

68. The practice of willingly hiding relevant information by being secretive and deceitful
       known as _________, occur when organization punishes individual who is open
      and honest and rewards the one who has unethical behaviour.

(A) ‘Window Dressing’
(B) ‘Counter Norms’
(C) ‘Stone-walling’
(D) None of the above

Answer C

69. Corporate Governance Committee appointed on May 7, 1999 was headed by

(A) Aditya Birla
(B) Kumar Mangalam Birla
(C) Rajendar Sachar
(D) J.S. Mehta

Answer B

70. The term ‘Corporate Governance’ comes closest to

(A) Corporate Management
(B) Corporate Administration
(C) Corporate Planning
(D) Corporate System

Answer D

71. The highest amount of FDI in India comes from

(A) Japan
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Indonesia
(D) Mauritius

Answer D

72. ‘Free trade’ means

(i) Opening different sectors for the FDI in flow
(ii) Greater competition which, in turn, enhances efficiency
(iii) Development of new industries
(iv) Incentives for Imports and Exports

Codes:

(A) All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) Both (i) and (ii)
(C) Only (ii)
(D) Only (i)

Answer C

73. Statement I : ‘Free trade’ leads to specialisation and thereby to increased output.
Statement II : Import restrictions are both long term and short term measures of
                        balances of payment adjustments.

Codes:

(A) Statement I is true, but II is false.
(B) Statement II is true, but I is false.
(C) Both the statements I and II are false.
(D) Both the statements I and II are true.

Answer A

74. In terms of the increasing competitions, among the MNCs, rank the followings in the
      ascending order:

(i) Mobile Technology
(ii) Business Intelligence
(iii) Cloud Computing
(iv) Social Media

(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (iv), (iii), (ii) and (i)
(C) (iv), (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iv) and (iii)

Answer B

75. Statement I : ‘Trade creation’ and ‘Trade Diversion’ both, have welfare implications.
Statement II : Regional partners should be competitive, and not complementary, for the
                        purpose of the most efficient use of economic resources within a
                        Customs Union.

Codes:

(A) Statement I is true, but statement II is false.
(B) Statement II is true, but statement I is false.
(C) Both the statements I and II are true.
(D) Both the statements I and II are false.

Answer C



source: www.ugcnetonline.in

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