1. The sum of the value of all final goods and services produced within a country and net factor income from abroad is termed as
(A) GNP
(B) Nominal GDP
(C) NNP
(D) Real GDP
Answer A
2. If a firm raises Rs. 1,00,000 by the issue of debentures at 10%, repayable after 10 years, the rate of return that equates the present value of cash inflows with the present value of cash outflows is referred to as
(A) Explicit cost
(B) Implicit cost
(C) Specific cost
(D) Future cost
Answer A
3. The major objective of economists to monopolies is
(A) lack of technological progress in such industries.
(B) the dangerous impact on democratic government.
(C) the inability in an industry where there is a single producer.
(D) the tendency to restrict output and charge higher price.
Answer D
4. Statement I : Demand for a commodity refers to quantity of the commodity demanded at a certain price during any particular period of time.
Statement II : Contraction of demand is the result of increase in the price of the goods concerned.
(A) Both I & II are correct.
(B) Both I and II are incorrect.
(C) I is correct and II is incorrect.
(D) II is correct and I is incorrect.
Answer A
5. Match the items given in List-I with most suitable options given in List-II.
List – I List – II
(a) Rate of discount which equates the net (i) Pay back period
present value to zero.
(b) Ratio of present value of cash inflows (ii) Internal Rate of Return
to the cash outflow.
(c) Percentage of annual net income earned (iii) Profitability Index
on average fund invested in a project.
(d) Investment divided by annual net cash (iv) Average Rate of Return
inflow.
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(B) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(D) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Answer C
6. The process through which individuals attempt to determine the causes behind others’ behaviour is known as
(A) Perception
(B) Attitude
(C) Attribution
(D) Social identity theory
Answer C
7. Which theory of human motivation focuses on personal perceptions of the performance process ?
(A) Adam’s Theory of Inequality
(B) McClelland’s Need Theory
(C) Vroom’s Expectancy Theory
(D) Alderfer’s ERG Theory
Answer C
8. Annual Reports, Balance Sheets, Brochures and Advertisements in organisational communication are the means to aim at
(A) Influencing
(B) Image building
(C) Group building
(D) Credibility building
Answer B
9. Match the following :
a. Attitudes 1. Beliefs that individuals possess certain
characteristics because of their membership in
certain groups.
b. Job Satisfaction 2. Negative attitude toward the members of
specific groups, based solely on the fact that
they are members of those groups.
c. Prejudice 3. Positive or negative attitudes held by
individuals toward their jobs.
d. Stereo types 4. Relatively stable clusters of feelings, beliefs
and behavioural intentions toward specific
objects, people or institutions.
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 4 3 2 1
Answer D
10. Match the following :
a. Delegating 1. A function of a situation wherein a
leader is effective only when the style used to
influence and alter the situation is appropriate.
b. Situational theory 2. Low nurturing and low regulating behaviour.
c. Grid training 3. A function of a situation wherein a leader
permits subordinates to take part in decision
making and permit them a considerable
degree of autonomy.
d. Participative Leadership 4. A multi step process designed to cultivate
concern for people and concern for production.
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 4 3 1 2
Answer C
11. On-the-job training methods are not based on
(A) Demonstration methods
(B) Interactive methods
(C) Vestibule Training methods
(D) Apprentice training method
Answer B
12. Minimum wage means
(A) Wage sufficient to ensure the workman food, shelter, clothing, frugal comfort and provision for evil days.
(B) Wages paid in proportion to workman’s work efficiency.
(C) A wage sufficient to satisfy the workman’s basic needs.
(D) A sum of money paid under contract by an employer to a workman for services rendered.
Answer C
13. Which of the following statement is true ?
(A) Profit sharing is an agreement freely entered into by which the employees receive share fixed in advance from the organization’s profits.
(B) An experiment in profit shares on a wide scale would therefore be definitely undertaking a voyage of an unchartered sea.
(C) Profit distribution under a profit sharing plan are used to fund employee retirement plans.
(D) All of the above.
Answer D
14. Performance appraisal includes
(A) Check reviews done by the supervisors.
(B) review his performance in relation to the objectives and other behaviours.
(C) Promote employees for self appraisal.
(D) All of the above.
Answer D
15. Match the following :
a. Human Resource Strategy 1. A goal-directed approach in which workers
and their supervisors set goals together
for the upcoming appraisal period.
b. Compensation 2. Time during which employees can choose
not to be at work.
c. Flexitime 3. A legally required benefit that provides
medical care, income continuation and
rehabilitation expenses.
d. Management by Objectives 4. A firm’s deliberate use of human resources
to help it to gain or maintain an edge against
its competitors.
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 3 4 1 2
Answer B
16. In which case, The acquirer puts pressure on the management of the target company by threatening to make an open offer, the board capitulates straight away and agrees for settlement with the acquirer for change of control.
(A) Poison Put
(B) Bear Hug
(C) Poison Pill
(D) None of the above
Answer B
17. Which of the following method of incorporation of risk in the capital budgeting decision framework is useful for situations in which decisions at one point of time also affect the decisions of the firm at some later date ?
(A) Certainty Equivalent Approach
(B) Probability Distribution Approach
(C) Risk-adjusted Discount Rate Approach
(D) Decision-tree Approach
Answer D
18. In which of the approach, the market value of the firm depends upon the EBIT and the overall cost of capital
(A) Net Income Approach
(B) Net Operating Income Approach
(C) Modigliani-Miller Approach
(D) None of the above
Answer B
19. Which is the assumption of Modigliani and Miller approach to cost of capital ?
(A) The firms can be classified into homogeneous risk class.
(B) The capital markets are assumed to be perfect.
(C) All investors have the same expectations from a firm’s net operating income which is necessary to evaluate the value of a firm.
(D) All of the above.
Answer D
20. Match the following :
List – I List – II
(Functions of Finance) (Significance)
a. Financial Statements 1. Check on Financial Activities
b. Administration of Tax 2. Reduction of Tax Liability
c. Internal Audit 3. Allocation of Fund
d. Budgeting 4. Income Statement
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 4 2 1 3
(D) 2 3 4 1
Answer C
21. A deliberate and careful choice of organisation, product, price promotion, place strategies and policies best define the concept of
(A) Marketing Mix
(B) Product Mix
(C) Market Penetration
(D) Market Segmentation
Answer A
22. Rational motives in buying process are explained as
(A) Motives based on careful, logical reasoning and self acceptance.
(B) Motives based on sensual satisfaction, fear and entertainment.
(C) Activity buyer adopts to satisfy buying needs.
(D) All of the above.
Answer A
23. Which of the following combination, according to hierarchy of effects model is correct ?
(A) Awareness – Liking – Knowledge – Conviction – Preference – Purchase.
(B) Awareness – Knowledge – Liking – Preference – Conviction – Purchase.
(C) Awareness – Liking – Knowledge – Conviction – Purchase – Preference.
(D) Awareness – Preference – Knowledge – Liking – Preference – Purchase.
Answer B
24. This consists of two lists of statements or terms and the candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other.
List – I List – II
(Statement) (Terms)
I. Brands which are evaluated for the 1. Consideration set
purchase decision.
II. Brands which are considered by the buyer 2. Evoked set
for evaluation.
III. Brands which are disliked and avoided. 3. Inept set
IV. Brands which the buyer is aware but is 4. Inert set
indifferent towards it.
Codes :
I II III IV
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 2 1 4 3
Answer B
25. “Marketing concept is the recognition on the part of management that all business
decisions at the firm must be made in the light of customer needs and wants, hence that all marketing activities must be under one supervision and that all activities of a firm must be coordinated at the top in the light of market requirements.” Who said it ?
(A) Lazo and Carton
(B) Schwartz G
(C) King RL
(D) C.P. Mc Namara
Answer *
26. Which one of the following is not a qualitative forecasting method ?
(A) Educated guess
(B) Executive Committee Consensus
(C) Delphi method
(D) Linear regression method
Answer D
27. Statement I : Mean (–X) chart do not give the desired result about process variability.
Statement II : Range (R) chart monitors process variability.
(A) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is false.
(B) Statement II is correct, but Statement I is false.
(C) Both Statements I and II are correct.
(D) Both Statements I and II are false.
Answer C
28. Which one is not a part of control charts for attributes ?
(A) P-chart
(B) σ-chart
(C) np-chart
(D) c-chart
Answer B
29. There are different phases in a Operations Research Project. They are
(i) Research phase
(ii) Action phase
(iii) Judgement phase
The correct sequence of these phases is
(A) (i), (ii), (iii)
(B) (iii), (i), (ii)
(C) (ii), (iii), (i)
(D) (iii), (ii), (i)
Answer B
30. The Graphical method can be used to solve
(A) A Linear Programming Problem (LPP) with all integer data.
(B) A LPP with two decision variables.
(C) Any LPP.
(D) A transportation problem with two origins and two destinations.
Answer B
31. A vendor can make a profit of Rs. 3,000 with a probability of 0.4 or make a loss of Rs. 1,000 with a probability of 0.6. What is his expected profit ?
(A) Rs. 600
(B) Rs. 800
(C) Rs. 1,000
(D) Rs. 500
Answer A
32. If the sample size is less than 50, which non parametric test can be used to test the independence of attributes ?
(A) Chi-square test
(B) Fisher Irwin test
(C) Cochran Q test
(D) Kruskal Wallis test
Answer B
33. Match the items given in List-I with most appropriate options given in List-II.
List – I List – II
(a) Centroid Method (i) Multiple Regression
(b) Hierarchical Method (ii) Factor Analysis
(c) Relationship between a single metric (iii) MANOVA
dependent and two or more independent
variables
(d) The main and interactive effects of (iv) Cluster Analysis
categorical variables on multiple dependent
interval variables.
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(B) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(C) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(D) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Answer B
34. Identify the window not associated with SPSS.
(A) Editor
(B) Syntax
(C) Output
(D) Format Cells
Answer D
35. Match the items given in Column-A with the items given in Column-B.
Column – A Column - B
(a) A process to upgrade the quality of the (i) Pattern recognition
data before it is moved into a data warehouse.
(b) A system that is used to run the business (ii) Data Scrubbing
in real time and is based on current data.
(c) A critical success factor in data mining of (iii) Operational system
large data store.
Codes :
(a) (b) (c)
(A) (ii) (iii) (i)
(B) (iii) (ii) (i)
(C) (i) (ii) (iii)
(D) (ii) (i) (iii)
Answer A
36. In BCG Matrix which division represents the organisation’s best long-run opportunities for growth and profitability ?
(A) Question marks
(B) Stars
(C) Cash Cows
(D) Dogs
Answer B
37. In a comprehensive strategy formulation framework which matrix reveals the relative attractiveness of alternative strategies and thus provides objective basis for selecting
specific strategies.
(A) SPACE Matrix
(B) SWOT Matrix
(C) QSPM Matrix
(D) Competitive Profile Matrix (CPM)
Answer C
38. Stage 2 of strategy formulation consists of
(A) EFE Matrix, the IFE Matrix and the Competitive Profile Matrix (CPM).
(B) SWOT Matrix, SPACE Matrix, BCG Matrix, the Internal- External (IE) Matrix, and the Grand Strategy Matrix.
(C) Quantitative Strategic Planning Matrix (QSPM).
(D) EFE Matrix, the IFE Matrix and Quantitative Strategic Planning Matrix (QSPM).
Answer B
39. Match the following :
Term Explanation
a. Strategy 1. Enduring statements of purpose that distinguish one business from other simple firms.
b. Vision 2. Specific results that an organization seeks to achieve.
c. Mission 3. What do we want to become ?
d. Objectives 4. Means by which long term objectives will be achieved.
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 4 3 1 2
(B) 4 2 3 1
(C) 1 3 2 4
(D) 1 2 3 4
Answer A
40. Match the following :
List – I List – II
(a) Italian Culture i. Importance on group loyalty and consensus
(b) American Culture ii. Employment as workers of those who are
agreeable, respectful and obedient rather
than innovative, creative and independent.
(c) Mexican Culture iii. Willing to do business with individuals they
do not know.
(d) Japanese Culture iv. A culture where in you do not soften up
executives with praise before criticize.
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) ii iii iv i
(D) iii iv i ii
Answer B
41. An Entrepreneur who is dominated more by customs, religions, traditions and past practices and he is not ready to take any risk is called as
(A) Drone Entrepreneur
(B) Adoptive Entrepreneur
(C) Fabian Entrepreneur
(D) Innovative Entrepreneur
Answer C
42. “Poverty is an artificial creation. It does not belong to human civilization and we can change that and can make people come out of poverty through redesigning our institutions and policies.” This preamble refers to
(A) Women Entrepreneurship
(B) Corporate Entrepreneurship
(C) Social Entrepreneurship
(D) None of the above
Answer C
43. Match the following :
List – I List – II
(Subject) (Technique)
a. Entrepreneurship 1. Innovation
b. Marketing 2. Promotion Mix
c. Inventory Management 3. Reorder Level
d. HR Planning 4. Appraisals
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 1 3 2 4
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 4 2 3 1
Answer B
44. _______ means identifying and imitating the best in the world at specific tasks and functions.
(A) Quality circle
(B) Outsourcing
(C) Bench marking
(D) Continuous Improvement
Answer C
45. Match the following :
(a) Action planning (i) New Actions are taken and old habits are broken.
(b) Accountability (ii) It is the periodic review of what has already been executed.
(c) Working the plan (iii) It is the art of delegation to implement a business plan.
(d) Reviewing the progress (iv) Making decisions relating to the order in which the
Business plan is implemented.
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(B) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(C) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(D) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
Answer B
46. Which of the following duties is not a general duty of directors of a company ?
(A) Duty of good faith
(B) Duty of care
(C) Duty to attend Board Meeting
(D) Duty not to delegate
Answer C
47. The principles to be followed for corporate social responsibility are
(A) involvement of stakeholders.
(B) maintaining transparency in reporting.
(C) independent verification of policies and outcome.
(D) All of the above.
Answer D
48. Match the following :
List – I List - II
(a) Value (i) Aham Brahmasmi
(b) Unethical behaviour (ii) Recycling Waste
(c) Indian ethos (iii)Bribery
(d) Environmental responsibility (iv) Trust worthiness
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(B) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(D) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
Answer B
49. The obligation of an organisation behave in a ethical way is known as
(A) Knowledge about ethics
(B) Social responsibility of business
(C) Organisational behaviour
(D) Business without ethics
Answer B
50. Identify the correct sequence of steps in a value identification process :
(i) Define the role of executive in leading the staff.
(ii) Learn about and discuss the power of shared values.
(iii) Obtain consensus that the leaders are committed to creating value based work place.
(iv) Provide written material the executives can share with their reporting staff.
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (iv), (ii), (iii) and (i)
(C) (ii), (iii), (i) and (iv)
(D) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (i)
Answer C
source: www.ugcnetonline.in
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